After reading a FoxNews article that included this website:
http://virginiaisforhaters.org , I noticed a certain parallel between the current gay rights struggle and the slave rights/lack thereof in the 1800's. Is it just me, or in both cases aren't states seeking to invalidate the laws of other states, therefore declaring jurisdiction over their boundaries?
To be more specific, Virginia has declared:
Quote:
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A civil union, partnership contract or other arrangement between persons of the same sex purporting to bestow the privileges or obligations of marriage is prohibited. Any such civil union, partnership contract or other arrangement entered into by persons of the same sex in another state or jurisdiction shall be void in all respects in Virginia and any contractual rights created thereby shall be void and unenforceable.
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